When we do a BAL (sometimes against our will, the so-called shut-up bronch: we do it so you will shut up about it), we very often send an "immunocompromise panel" whether the patient has immunocompromise or not. PJP PCR is included in this panel. If it comes back positive, does that mean the patient has PJP?
Firstly, the way to properly diagnose a disease is to build the case for it using natural/history, symptoms, course, risk factors, response to therapy, exclusion of alternative diagnoses. For PJP, a convincing classical picture (outside of HIV/AIDS) is subacute dyspnea on exertion, dry cough, fevers, ground glass opacities on CT (or interstitial opacities on CXR), often in the context of a recent tapering or abrupt discontinuation of corticosteroids. Why on tapering? Because the corticosteroids are suppressing the inflammation/immune response and symptoms of the PJP infection and they are unmasked during tapering or discontinuation. I think of it as the opposite of what we (used to) do in HIV, viz give steroids if the A-a gradient was above a certain level. Because when you started treating them, they got worse as the organisms died off, and steroids ameliorated the clinical worsening.
The fewer the features of the disease you have, the lower the pre-test probability. It is often so low that it falls below the test threshold of Pauker and Kassirer. Why don't I test you for PE right now? You might have PE, how do you know you don't? I don't test you for PE right now because the probability of you having it without symptoms is so low that I do more harm with a CTPA than the benefit I expect to accrue from finding PE (in a probability-adjusted, EUT style analysis). And, false positives. If I select 1000 random people without symptoms (or with protean or nonspecific symptoms) I may find 10 "PEs". But 9 of them are so-called subsegmental PEs, which is itself a misnomer. It is a subsegmental filling defect in the pulmonary arterial tree on contrast-enhanced imaging. We make an inference that it's a PE. (It could also be an in situ thrombosis from an adjacent process, e.g, pneumonia, atelectasis.) And even if it is a "subsegmental PE", it's unclear whether we should treat it. If it is a false positive, we subject you to a treatment you don't need, won't benefit from, and may be harmed from. And, let's say 0.1% of these 1000 people we "screen" for PE get a contrast reaction. Using this policy of testing people with a negligible probability of PE, we have found 1 segmental PE which we treat (and which may have come to clinical attention later), we found 9 false positives and gave them anticoagulation they don't need, and we created 10 contrast reactions that needed treatment. Oh, yeah: and one dude wouldn't lie down in the scanner so he got sedated and had a respiratory arrest. All that to say that you need to build a case for the disease before you embark on the testing. (Kline et al used the method of Pauker and Kassirer to estimate that the proper test threshold is about 2% PE probability for CTPA.)
Similarly, getting reflexive/routine PJP PCR (or other highly sensitive molecular testing, especially for organisms that are ubiquitous in the environment) on bronchoscopy with BAL, in patients without a compatible presentation or a predisposition for it is a prescription for false positives, because PJP can be a commensal or an environmental contaminant. What's the false positive rate? Well, that depends on the pre-test probability! I can tell you the specificity is about 85%. That means that if you take 100 people who don't have PJP infection but you run the PCR, 15 of them will test positive, and that's exactly what we found when we did BAL on 24 young people with EVALI: 3 of them had positive PCR. Clearly, none of them had PJP, they wound up having EVALI, and we did not treat them (well, we gave them steroids!) and they all did fine on follow-up. You can go to Status Iatrogenicus and play with the Bayes' theorem calculator there to see what the probability of PJP is with varying levels of pre-test probability. Even with a pre-test probability of 10%, sensitivity of 99% and specificity of 85%, the post-test probability of PJP is 42% - you have more false positives than true positives. You may think that 42% is above the treatment threshold - the probability at which the benefits of treatment (in the patient or the population) exceed the harms of treating people without the disease - and that's fine. But I want to establish if we can determine that, in the absence of immunosuppression, the pre-test probability of PJP is basically zero, and all results can be considered false positive. Or, better: determine if, in the absence of immunosuppression, the probability of PJP is uniformly below the test threshold and testing should not be performed. That last statement would please Pauker and Kassirer, but the problem is people (other than yours truly, the Phlegmfighter) don't use thresholds so we will have to deal with false positives. Frequently.
So, we have to go to the literature. The first widely referenced series of purported PJP in the literature was in the NEJM in 1991. In this series, BAL fluid was centrifuged and then analyzed with Gram-Weigert stan, with the number of "organisms" identified per slide quantified. This stain, like those described in the next series, is highly susceptible to background noise because it stains all cellular material: bacteria, host cells, and debris. So we have a specificity issue, but we shall proceed. Who were the patients?














